My first post. I am having a disagreement with a Contractor regards price adjustment for inflation. The contract does not use X1 and this was removed at tender so the Contractor is fully aware of this. However, their argument is that the works have changed and CE’s have pushed the works over a FY and they couldn’t anticipate this at the time of tender so believe they should be able to apply X1.
Whilst I do see their argument (if a project was only 1 year but grew into 3 not really fair) but I believe that there is no ground for price adjustment for inflation given option X1 is not used and the delay is from Feb to June (4 months) but wanted to be sure. Comments and thoughts welcome.