In the event of a contractor not being in possession of a legally binding contract, but having worked for the company in question before under a written contract, will the terms of this previous contract be applicable?

JCT_Experts · 4 February 2013 14:40

Quite simply, no. If two parties have entered into numerous identical contracts then courts may uphold this, but otherwise previous contracts do not imply that future work will operate under the same contractual conditions.

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In the event of a contractor not being in possession of a legally binding contract, but having worked for the company in question before under a written contract, will the terms of this previous contract be applicable?

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